2020学堂在线(学堂云3.0、Pro)AP Biology – Part 2: Genetics慕课答案,学堂在线AP Biology – Part 2: Genetics慕课答案单元章节答案、期末考试答案

2020学堂在线(学堂云3.0、Pro)AP Biology – Part 2: Genetics慕课答案,学堂在线AP Biology – Part 2: Genetics慕课答案单元章节答案、期末考试答案 - 2020学堂在线(学堂云3.0、Pro)答案 - 课查查

本课程为备考AP生物学考试系列课程五个部分中的第二部分。

Meiosis produces _______ cells used in _______ reproduction.

  • diploid; asexual
  • haploid; sexual
  • diploid; sexual
  • haploid; asexual

The separation of homologous chromosomes to produce haploid cells first occurs during which stage of meiosis?

  • prophase I
  • metaphase I
  • anaphase I
  • anaphase II

The process that occurs when part of a homologous chromosome breaks off and is exchanged with a nonsister chromatid is know as

  • nondisjunction.
  • translocation.
  • crossing over.
  • independent assortment.

All of the following introduce genetic variation into populations except

  • mutation of DN
  • crossing over.
  • independent assortment.
  • asexual reproduction.

Which of the following statements describes a homologous pair of chromosomes?

  • a pair of chromosomes that is exactly identical to one another
  • a pair of chromosomes that has the same genes but different alleles
  • a pair of chromosomes that is genetically different from each other
  • a pair of chromosomes produced by mitosis and divided by meiosis

In the process of meiosis the organism's gametes have _____ the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

  • equal
  • half
  • double
  • one fourth

When does crossing over occur in meiosis?

  • prophase 1
  • anaphase 1
  • metaphase 1
  • prophase 2

Which type of cell goes through meiosis?

  • kidney cells
  • heart cells
  • sperm cells
  • skin cells

There are multiple types of reproduction. Which type increases genetic variation in a population?

  • parthenogenesis
  • asexual reproduction
  • sexual reproduction
  • vegetative reproduction

The diagram below shows the process of meiosis. At what point are there haploid cells formed?

  • step 1
  • step 2
  • step 3
  • step 4

During meiosis II what do the sister chromatids do?

  • They duplicate.
  • They separate.
  • They remain together.
  • They do not take part.

Which statement below is the best comparison of mitosis and meiosis?

  • Meiosis is two division cycles with a result of haploid cells. Mitosis is one division cycle and results in diploid daughter cells.
  • Meiosis is two divisions cycles and results in diploid cells, while mitosis is one division and results in haploid cells.
  • Mitosis is two division cycles and results in diploid daughter cells, while meiosis is one division cycle and results in haploid gametes.
  • Mitosis is two division cycles and results in haploid gametes, while meiosis is one division cycle and results in diploid daughter cells.

If an organism is said to be true breeding for a particular trait, this means that

  • they are heterozygous for that trait.
  • they are homozygous for that trait.
  • they are incompletely dominant for that trait.
  • they have two kinds of alleles for that trait.

Imagine you are performing a cross involving seed color in garden pea plants. What F1 offspring would you expect if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds and yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green.

  • 100 percent yellow-green seeds
  • 100 percent yellow seeds
  • 50 percent yellow, 50 percent green seeds
  • 25 percent green, 75 percent yellow seeds

Consider a cross to investigate the pea pod texture trait, involving constricted or inflated pods. Mendel found that the traits behave according to a dominant/recessive pattern in which inflated pods were dominant. If you performed this cross and obtained 650 inflated-pod plants in the F2 generation, approximately how many constricted-pod plants would you expect to have

  • 600.
  • 165.
  • 217.
  • 468.

If two heteroygous are crossed with one another, what is the expected phenotypic ratio from the cross?

  • 1:2:1
  • 4:0
  • 3:1
  • 1:1

Which of the following crosses will produce a 1:1 phenotypic and genotypic ratio?

  • Aa x Aa
  • AA x aa
  • Aa x aa
  • Aa x AA

A heritable trait with two different forms (dominant and recessive) is known as

  • an allele.
  • a genotype.
  • a phenotype.
  • a gene.

The physical expression of an organism's genes is known as

  • genotype.
  • heterozygote.
  • phenotype.
  • independent assortment.

In pigs, eye color is controlled by a single gene with two alleles. A farmer crossed a homozygous green-eyed pig with a homozygous brown-eyed pig, producing blue-eyed offspring. If the blue-eyed pigs are then mated with each other, what would the percent of their offspring most likely have brown eyes?

  • 0%
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%

In lettuce, black seed color (B) is dominant over white seed color (b). Which of the following would be expected in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross given that the P1 generation is a dominant homozygote crossed with a recessive homozygote?

  • only plants that produce black seeds
  • only plants with the Bb gentoype
  • plants with one black seed for every white seed
  • three plants with black seeds for every plant with white seeds

Pea plants have several dominant traits. Purple flowers are dominant (P) to white flowers and Tall plants (T) are dominant to dwarf plants. Plants that were homozygous for the dominant phenotypes were crossed with plants that were homozygous for the recessive phenotypes. This yielded the F1 offspring that produced purple flowers and tall plants. These plants were allowed to self-fertilize to produce the F2 generation. What fraction of the F2 generation will be dwarf plants with purple flowers?

  • 1/16
  • 3/16
  • 9/16
  • 1/2

A routine chromosomal analysis of a famous actress revealed that she had both a male sex chromosome and a condensed sex chromosome known as a Barr body. Physical examination showed that she had a feminine breast development but was actually a male. This person's genotype, with respect to the sex chromosomes, must be

  • XYY.
  • XXY.
  • XY.
  • XXX.

A student in a biology class crossed a male dragonfly having a green body and long wings with a female dragonfly having a blue body and short wings. The following distribution of traits was observed in the offspring.Which of the folloiwng is supported by the data?

  • The alleles for green body and long wings are dominant.
  • The alleles for green body andlong wings are recessive.
  • Genes for the two traits are located on two different chromosomes, and independent assortment occurred.
  • Genes for the two traits are located close together on the same chromosome, and crossing over occurred between the two gene loci.

Mendel studied pea plants which lead to significant discoveries in the field of genetics. When he crossed homozygous tall pea plants with homozygous short pea plants, the result was always tall pea plants. This result lead Mendel to conclude that the gene for tall pea plants is

  • blended.
  • dominant.
  • mutated.
  • recessive.

In a species of horse, the gene for black hair is dominant which the gene for brown hair is recessive. A male horse with black hair and a female horse with black hair produce an offspring with brown hair. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

  • Both parents carry the recessive gene.
  • The male parent carries the recessive gene but the female does not.
  • The female parent carries the recessive gene but the male does not.
  • Brown hair would not normally be found in the offspring of these parents and is therefore a spontaneous mutation.

A Guinea pig test cross results are below:What conclusion can be drawn from the genetic information above?

  • The white parent carried a dominant allele.
  • All the F1 rabbits carried a recessive allele.
  • All the white rabbits are heterozygous.
  • All the black rabbits in the F2 generation are homozygous.

Which is one of the seven characteristics that Mendel observed in pea plants?

  • flower size
  • seed texture
  • leaf shape
  • stem color

When offspring have a different combination of 2 phenotypic traits than that of either parent, this is an example of

  • recombination.
  • linked genes.
  • mutations.
  • unlinked genes.

What does a recombination of 10% mean?

  • mutation
  • linked genes.
  • unlinked genes.
  • crossing over.

Red green colorblindness is a recessive allele on the X chromosome. If a woman with normal vision and a colorblind father marries a colorblind male, what is the probability that this couple will have colorblind offspring?

  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%

What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?

  • The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
  • Genes align that way during metaphase 1.
  • They are located on the same chromosome.
  • Alleles are paired.

If a man carries an x-linked genetic disorder, he will pass it onto

  • all of his daughters.
  • half of his daughters.
  • all of his sons.
  • half of his sons.

When the F2 generation of flies hatched, the only white-eyed flies were males. Which of the following is the best explanation for this result?

  • The gene for eye color is on the X chromosome.
  • The gene for eye color is on the Y chromosome.
  • The eye color gene is autosomal, but only the males carry the gene for white eyes.
  • There are environmental factors that influence eye color in flies.

The expected results of the F2 generation of flies was 75% red-eyed flies and 25% white-eyed flies, each comprised of male and female flies. Which of the following is an explanation of why the actual results of the F2 generation of flies to vary from the expected results?

  • Mendel's Law of Dominance states that the dominant allele will express itself and mask the appearance of the recessive allele.
  • The locus for a gene is not fixed and can move positions on a chromosome and among chromosomes.
  • The alleles for eye color are co-dominant allowing white eyes to appear when there is not an allele for red.
  • The inheritance of eye color is closely related to the inheritance of the sex chromosomes.

Morgan continued his experiment by mating a red-eyed female fruit fly that carried the white-eyed gene with a white-eyed male fruit fly. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

  • 1 pink-eyed female: 1 white-eyed female: 1 red-eyed male: 1 white-eyed male
  • 1 red-eyed female: 1 white-eyed female: 1 red-eyed male: 1 white-eyed male
  • 1 red-eyed female: 1 white-eyed female: 1 pink-eyed male: 1 white-eyed male
  • 1 red-eyed female: 1 white-eyed female: 1 red-eyed male: 1 blind male

As Morgan continued his experimentation, he discovered that some genes are transmitted to offspring in groups rather than following Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment. What phrase was coined to represent the genes that are transmitted in groups?

  • gene swapping
  • genetic linkage
  • non-nuclear inheritance
  • polysomic inheritance

Which type of inheritance is present when a trait is characterized as having more than two alleles that govern its inheritance?

  • polygenic traits
  • incomplete dominance
  • sex-linked traits
  • multiple alleles

What phenotypic ratio would you expect to occur when a red snapdragon flower is crossed with a white snapdragon flower?

  • 4 red snapdragon flowers
  • 2 red snapdragon flowers : 2 white snapdragon flowers
  • 4 pink snapdragon flowers
  • 1 red snapdragon flower : 2 pink snapdragon flowers : 1 white snapdragon flower

Which of the following statements is true about sex-linked traits?

  • They are found on autosomes.
  • They are linked to the Y chromosome.
  • They are more frequent in females.
  • They are more likely to occur in males.

The recombination frequency between two genes has a maximum value of 0.5. If the recombination frequency is 0.13 for a particular pair of genes, this means that

  • nondisjunction must have occurred on the chromosome involved.
  • the two gene loci are far apart from one another.
  • the two gene loci are very close to one another.
  • crossing over happens more frequently between these two loci.

If two genes from a parent cell are on the same chromosome, which of the following best explains why the daughter cells may not have the same alleles as the parent for both genes?

  • they are linked genes
  • they are unlinked genes
  • crossing-over
  • genetic mutation

Which of the following questions about molecular inheritance was not answered by Avery, McCarty and MacLeod's extension of Griffith's transformation experiment?

  • Can proteins act as the molecular basis of inheritance?
  • Is the molecular basis of inheritance a nucleic acid?
  • Can RNA transmit genetic information from one generation to the next?
  • Can lipids store genetic information and transmit it from one generation to the next?

What was the purpose of using radioactively labeled phosphorus in the Hershey-Chase experiment?

  • to see if the phosphorus could be found in any proteins produced by the phage-infected bacteria
  • to see if the phosphorus was a part of the phages before they infected the bacteria
  • to determine if the DNA from the phages was passed along to the bacteria cells
  • to see if the phosphorus was a part of the phages' protein coats

If a sequence of DNA reads 5'-ATCGATCCGTTA-3', what is its complementary sequence?

  • 5'-TAGCTAGGCAAT-3'
  • 3'-TAGCTAGGCAAT-5'
  • 5'-AUGCUAGGCAAU-3'
  • 3'-AUGCUAGGCAAU-5'

If a sample of DNA extracted from a culture of cells is found to have 18% guanine, what would the expected proportion of thymine be from this culture?

  • 18%
  • 32%
  • 36%
  • 64%

1966 Scientist Kiwako Sakab and Reiji Okazaki discovered fragments, now known as Okazaki fragments, during their research on DNA replication of Escherichia coli. They continued their research studying bacteriophage DNA replication in Escherichia coli. Which enzyme is used during replication to attach Okazaki fragments to each other?

  • DNA ligase
  • DNA polymerase
  • RNA polymerase
  • reverse transcript

If you use the DNA strand shown as a template below, completing DNA replication determine the complementary DNA strand moving from its 3' to 5' end. 3' T-A-A-G-C-T 5'

  • A-U-U-C-G-A
  • A-G-C-U-U-A
  • A-T-T-C-G-A
  • A-G-C-T-T-A

The biological process that all living organisms complete is DNA replication in which the DNA of an organism is copied; it is the basis of biological inheritance. DNA polymerase catalyzes reactions in which

  • the hydrogen bonds between the nitrogen bases are broken to unwind the double helix.
  • the phosphodiester bonds of each polynucleotide strand are broken.
  • a phosphate group of a nucleotide is added to the open 3'-carbon of the growing polynucleotide strand.
  • a nucleic acid is attached to a ribose sugar.

This is a term phrased by Griffith and could be used to describe the event when dead lethal E. coli cells were placed in the same container as living harmless E. coli cells and it somehow turned the harmless E. coli into the lethal type.

  • transformation
  • restriction
  • DNA sequencing
  • replicaiton

Which letter in the above diagram best represents where DNA zips and unzips by the enzyme helicase?

  • Structure A
  • Structure B
  • Structure D
  • Structure E

Which letter in the DNA diagram above best represents the part of the monomer that codes for the genetic inheritance?

  • Structure A
  • STructure B
  • Structure C
  • Structure D

Which of the statements below about plasmids is correct?

  • They are found only in eukaryotic cells.
  • They are synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum
  • They are self-replicating.
  • They are composed of RN

How is the rate of migration of the DNA fragments determined in the agrose gel?

  • by the ratio of adenine to cytosine in the fragment
  • by the presence of hydrogen bonds bwteeen base pairs
  • by the length of time the electrophoresis unit is allowed to operate
  • by the number of nucleotides in the fragment

Why is the type and density of the gel important?

  • Because they influence the rate of migration of the fragments.
  • Because they may cause some DNA molecules to replicate.
  • Because some DNA nucleotides may be lost due to chemical reactions with the gel.
  • Because some DNA molecules may sink to the bottom and not migrate.

There is a phenomenon that allows a cat to express a gene from fireflies. If the firefly gene for Luciferase is introduced into cat embryos during early development, the resulting cats will be able to express the gene and they will emit light, just like the bioluminescent fireflies. Which of the following is the reason for this phenomenon to take place?

  • Mitochondria can be made to produce light if firefly proteins are injected into animal cells.
  • Fireflies and cats share a recent common ancestor.
  • Fireflies and cats are infected by the same kinds of bacteria.
  • Transcription and translation are fundamentally similar in both fireflies and cats.

4.2 Gregor Mendel is known as the Father of Genetics. While breeding pea plants and analyzing their phenotype, he was able to derive the laws of inheritance. Mendel did not know about chromosomes, their structure or their function. Later, after the discovery of chromosomes, we were able to identify the source of inheritance. Which best describes what happens to the chromosome in terms of Mendel's observations that lead to Law of Independent Assortment?

  • crossing over of non-sister chromatids during ProphaseI
  • arrangement of the tetrads along the metaphase plate during Metaphase I
  • separation of the homologous chromosomes during AnaphaseI
  • DNA replication during interphase of meiosis and the separation of the chromosomes during Anaphase I

What fraction of the F2 generation will be tall plants with white flowers?

  • 1/16
  • 3/16
  • 9/16
  • 1/2

Using the above traits in pea plants, a cross with unknown parental genotypes resulted in the following number of offspring: 202 purple flowers, tall plants; 199 purple flowers, short plants; 65 white flowers, tall plants; 67 white flowers, short plants. What was the likely genotype of the parents?

  • PpTt x PpTt
  • ppTT x PPtt
  • PpTt x pptt
  • PpTt x Pptt

4.3 In the third generation, if the affected male marries a female who is a carrier for the trait and has two children, what is the probability that their first child is a female who is a carrier for the trait?

  • 0%
  • 50%
  • 25%
  • 100%

In the above pedigree, what is the likely inheritance pattern of this trait?

  • autosomal recessive
  • sex-linked dominant
  • sex-linked recessive
  • mitochondrial

A late onset disorder known as MNGIE disease affects the muscles of the digestive system and the nerves involved in the digestive process. Symptoms of this disorder can begin to show anytime from infancy through adulthood and the disorder is progressive. Individuals diagnosed with this disorder have difficulty moving food through the digestive tract, as well as other neurological symptoms such as peripheral neuropathy in the hands and feet and droopy eyelids. The most severe symptom is deterioration of white matter of the brain. The severity of the symptoms may very from person to person diagnosed with the disease.A 65 year old woman was diagnosed with MNGIE disease after several years of testing and doctor visits for her symptoms. Knowing it is a genetic disorder, her three children and husband are genetically tested. The husband does not have the genetic variant of the disorder, however her daughter and two sons are diagnosed with the disorder. The son's children are unaffected, but all of the daughter's children are affected, too. What is the most likely inheritance pattern?

  • mitochondrial
  • sex-linked recessive
  • sex-linked dominant
  • autosomal dominant

What is the most likely explanation for the data?

  • The red allele and the white allele are both expressed resulting in a co-dominance inheritance pattern.
  • The red allele and the white allele are interfering with the expression of the pink allele and this is called epistatsis.
  • In a heterozygote, the red and white allele are both expressed, however this results in a pink phenotype due to the incomplete dominance of the red and white alleles.
  • This is a polygneic trait because snapdragon flower color results in three phenotypes.

What is the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation of these snapdragon flowers?

  • 1 red : 3 pink : 1 white
  • 1 red : 1 pink : 1 white
  • 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white
  • The phenotypic ratio cannot be determined from the data.

In the 1940s Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty extended Griffith's transformation experiment. Which of the following was determined to be the genetic material that was transformed?

  • DNA
  • enzymes
  • polysaccharides
  • protein

What did Griffith observe when he mixed the heat-killed smooth bacteria with the live, rough bacteria in Procedure IV?

  • The mice became resistant to Streptoccus pnuemonia when mixing live strains of both types of bacteria.
  • Mixing the heat-killed nonpathogenic strains of bacteria with the living pathogenic strains makes the pathogenic bacteria harmless.
  • The mice mutated and produced a protein coat around its cells to protect it from all types of pathogenic agents.
  • Mixing the heat-killed pathogenic strains of bacteria with the living nonpathogenic strains can transform some of the bacteria into harmful forms.

If the Streptococcus pneumonia is grown in nutrient agar that has been treated with an enzyme that cuts the complementary base sequences each time that adenine binds with uracil, which process will be directly affected?I. replicationII. transcriptionIII.translationIV. transformation

  • I only
  • I and II
  • II and III
  • I, II, III, and IV

If Griffith extended his investigation to include injecting a mixture of a heat-killed smooth strain bacteria and a live rough strain bacteria with an enzyme that digests DNA into the mice, what can be predicted about the outcome of the investigation?

  • The rough strain bacteria will become transformed into the smooth strain bacteria producing a pathogen that will cause the mice to die.
  • The smooth strain bacteria will become transformed into the rough strain bacteria producing a pathogen that will cause the mice to die.
  • The mice will not be affected because the enzyme would digest the DNA of both bacteria strains preventing transformation from occurring.
  • The mice will mutate and lose their immunity because their DNA would be destroyed by the enzyme causing them to die.

Which of the following describes the flow of information found in retroviruses?

  • DNA > RNA > protein > RNA
  • RNA > protein > DNA
  • RNA > DNA > RNA > protein
  • RNA > DNA > protein > DNA

What is a haploid cell also referred to as?

  • zygote
  • gamete
  • polar body
  • blastocysts

A giraffe has 62 chromosomes. The sperm or egg cell of a giraffe would have

  • 62 chromosomes.
  • 15 chromosomes.
  • 124 chromosomes.
  • 31 chromosomes.

This is a failure of chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate during meiosis.

  • nondisjunction
  • independent assortment
  • crossing over
  • fertilization

The process of DNA replication

  • will occur between meiosis I and meiosis II.
  • will occur during the S phase of interphase of mitosis and meiosis I.
  • will occur during the S phase of interphase of meiosis I ONLY.
  • will occur during the S phase of interphase of mitosis ONLY.

All organisms have some type of life cycle and show genetic variation. Which of the following will increase genetic variation in all living life forms?

  • segregation of chromosomes
  • mutations in the genetic code
  • crossing over during meiosis
  • independent assortment of the chromosomes

If a lavender plant has a genotype of Ppnn, what are the possible genetic combinations that could be present in a single grain of pollen from this plant?

  • Pn, pn
  • PN, pn
  • PN, Pn, pn
  • Pn, pn, PN, pN

A student is looking at the genetic pedigree as seen below. The pedigree only shows that the males are affected by a genetic disorder. This type of pedigree is demonstrating what type of inheritance?

  • dominant
  • sex-linked
  • recessive
  • passive

The nucleic acid responsible for carrying information for making proteins from the DNA to the ribosomes is

  • transfer RN
  • interfering RN
  • messenger RN
  • ribosomal RN

If a sequence of DNA reads 5' A G T C A G T C G T A A 3', what is its complementary RNA sequence?

  • 5' A G U C A G U C G U A A 3'
  • 3' U C A G U C A G C A U U 5'
  • 5' U C A G U C A G C A U U 3'
  • 3' T C A G T C A G C A T T 5'

An intron in a sequence of eukaryotic DNA can be compared to

  • a commercial in a television program.
  • the chorus in a song that is repeated over and over.
  • the opening credits of a movie.
  • the cover of a magazine.

A mutation leading to the insertion of a stop codon in the middle of an RNA sequence where previously there was not a stop codon is known as a

  • missense mutation.
  • substitution mutation.
  • silent mutation.
  • nonsense mutation.

Using the DNA template in a process called _______ RNA is synthesized utilizing which enzyme?

  • translation, RNA polymerase
  • transcription, DNA polymerase
  • transcription, RNA polymerase
  • replication, DNA polymerase

Transcription and translation are the two processes linking genes to proteins. Genes provide instructions for making specific proteins. During translation which of the following is not a necessary component?

  • anticodon
  • mRNA
  • ligase
  • amino acid

Given the following DNA strand, which of the following is its complementary mRNA? 3' C C T C T G A T T 5'

  • 5' G G A G A C U A A 3'
  • 5' G G A G A C T A A 3'
  • 5' G G A C T G A T T 3'
  • 5' T T A G T C A G G 3'

Using the codon chart above, the possible sequence of nucleotides in the sense strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence Lys-Asn-Ile-Thr would be

  • 5'TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3'
  • 3'AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA 5'
  • 5' AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 3'
  • 3' AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5'

DNA is located in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell. During the process of transcription, the DNA is converted into mRNA as the first step of protein synthesis. Which statement BEST describes why it is more of an advantage for a eukaryotic cell to use mRNA instead of DNA for translation during protein synthesis?

  • mRNA is highly stable compared to DNA and cannot be degraded in the cytoplasm due to the poly-A tail and 5’ prime cap, which means this mRNA transcript can be used over and over again to build the same polypeptide.
  • mRNA can be cut and spliced into a variety of transcripts for translation, this means 1 mRNA transcript can make multiple polypeptides possible after transcription has occurred.
  • The DNA in the nucleus can never be changed, whereas the mRNA products can vary depending on what polypeptides need to be made. Genetic variation from errors in the translation process drives genetic variation.
  • The DNA in the nucleus is protected from nucleases in the cytoplasm. By allowing the cell to make a mRNA transcript, this protects the DNA and allows the mRNA to enter the cytoplasm, in which it will be degraded over time, depending on the cell’s protein needs.

If an mRNA codon reads UAC, what would be the complementary anticodon on a tRNA molecule that binds to this codon?

  • UAC
  • AUG
  • ATC
  • TAG

How is the information in DNA used by an organism?

  • Proteins are built directly from the information in the DN
  • DNA is translated into protein and then transcribed to RN
  • The information in DNA is transcribed to mRNA and then translated into protein.
  • DNA leaves the nucleus and interacts directly with other molecules in the cell.

Why are frameshift mutations more dramatic than base substitutions?

  • Frameshift mutations are more common than base pair substitution mutations, and only slightly impact the function of the polypeptide.
  • Frameshift mutations only affect a single amino acid codon, and always result in a nonfunctional protein.
  • Frameshift mutations are silent mutations, there is no change to the polypeptide sequence.
  • Frameshift mutations affect more than one amino acid in the polypeptide chain, which will greatly impact the function of the protein.

A shift in the reading frame can be caused by an insertion or

  • deletion of a nucleotide.
  • translocation of chromosome segment to a non – homologous chromosome
  • a non-sense mutation that ceases the production of the polypeptide.
  • a base – pair substitution of a nucleotide.

Of the folloiwng statements below, which of the mutations would have the most harmful effect on an organism?

  • a base-pair substitution
  • a single base insertion near the start of the coding sequence
  • a single base deletion near the middle of an intron
  • a single base deletion clase to the end of the coding sequence.

Genes have a specific structure, one component of which is a promoter. Which of the following describes the role of the promoter for a gene?

  • a protein that binds to a repressor, blocking RNA polymerase activity
  • a segment of DNA that RNA polymerase binds to so that transcription is initiated
  • a segment of DNA that codes for a regulatory protein
  • a noncoding segment of DNA

All of the following are components of an operon except

  • operator
  • structural gene
  • regulatory gene
  • enhancer

Which of the following is NOT a role of p53 in transcription?

  • p53 is a tumor suppressor gene and regulates the process of cell division.
  • p53 produces a protein that regulates the process of apoptosis.
  • p53 acts as an alternative binding site for RNA polymerase.
  • p53 produces a protein that acts as a transcription factor.

What will result from the binding of a transcription factor to an enhancer region?

  • decreased transcription of an adjacent gene
  • increased transcription of a distant gene
  • alteration of the translation of an adjacent gene
  • initiation of the recruitment of RNA polymerase

Genes have many regulatory sites that control gene expression, one of these is called the enhancer. Which choice best describes the enhancer site?

  • The enhancer site is only found in operons of a prokaryotic cell.
  • The enhancer site is part of the promoter region that allows transcription factors to bind, allowing RNA polymerase to bind.
  • The enhancer site is a distal control site many nucleotides upstream from the promoter site, and activates the initiation complex of transcription.
  • The enhancer site is part of the termination sequence that tells RNA polymerase to stop the process of transcription.

In prokaryotes, which of these statements is not true about their genetic control?

  • RNA polymerase must bind to a promoter on the DNA to begin RNA synthesis.
  • Most gene expression is regulated at the level of translation.
  • An active repressor protein prevents RNA polymerase from binding to DNA in a repressible operon.
  • Structural genes that produce all enzymes for a metabolic pathway are organized into operons with one promoter region.

What is an oncogene?

  • a normal gene that controls the cell cycle and is not harmful
  • a mutated form of a proto-oncogene (normally stimulates cell division) that no longer controls cell division process and increases the rate of that division
  • a bacterial gene that causes cancer in the host
  • a normal gene that always suppresses cell division when it is not time for the cell to go through cell division.

What are the genes called that have the ability to jump or move within and between chromosomes?

  • introns
  • oncogenes
  • transposons
  • exons

Eukaryotic gene expression can be controlled by which of the following mechanisms?

  • the addition of acetyl groups to histone proteins or methylation of DNA
  • the rate that a protein product is degraded in the cell, such as cyclin
  • the rate of degredation of mRNA in the cytoplasm by RNAi (RNA interference)
  • the rate of transcription based on the available activators in the nucleus of the cell
  • eukaryotes use all of these methods to control the expression of a gene

In the initiation process of transcription, the sequence of DNA that allows RNA polymerase to bind is called

  • the promoter region.
  • the enhancer region.
  • the termination region.
  • the un-translated region (UTR)

In _____ cells a TATA box is present and is the site where _____ take place.

  • bacterial; RNA polymerase binds to complete transcription of an operon
  • eukaryotic; DNA ligase cleaves introns
  • eukaryotic; RNA polymerase binds to begin the process of transcription
  • both baterial and eukaryotic; inhibitors bind to regulate the process of transcription

The human genome was found to have about 20,000 coding genes after the completion of the human genome project. Humans produce many more proteins than the number of genes available. Which statement best describes why humans can have much fewer genes, yet still produces a wide array of proteins?

  • The introns that are unusually long are involved in gene regulation after they are removed.
  • Much of the DNA is methylated and therefore it is able to be transcribed.
  • The RNA processing allows for alternative splicing of a polypeptide, which allows for variations of a single gene.
  • Mutations in the mRNA from transcription allow for different polypeptides to be produced in translation.

Which statement correctly describes the mRNA processing in eukaryotic cells?

  • Removal of introns and splicing together of exons occurs in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
  • the addition of the 5' cap and a poly-A tail ONLY
  • Removal of exons and splicing together of introns along with the addition of a 5' cap and a poly-A tail must occur before translation in eukaryotes.
  • The addition of the 5' cap and poly-A tail along with removal of introns; and splicing together of exons must occur before eukaryotic translation.

During some transcription of the lac operator, under which of the following contitions will the lac genes be expressed in a cell?

  • low glucose, lactose available
  • high glucose, lactose available
  • low glucose, lactose unavailable
  • none of the above

Which best describes bacteriophage?

  • a virus that causes the flu in humans, pigs and birds
  • a virus that only infects bacteria
  • a bacterium that is immune to viral infections
  • a protein that can cause other proteins to become misshapen and malfunction.

Which of the following best describes the lytic cycle of viruses?

  • viral DNA replaces bacterial DNA
  • as the viral genome is expressed and new viruses are made, they destroy the host cell by lysing
  • the viral genome replicates and builds new viruses, they leave the cell through exocytosis and leave the host undamaged
  • viral DNA is embedded in the host's genome and can replicate any time

What does the diagram above illustrate?

  • a cell being lysed by a virus
  • a cell being infected by a virus
  • a virus undergoing genetic recombination
  • a cell fighting a virus

In the diagram above, the viral DNA is incorporated into the host cell's DNA. Which of the following best describes what is occurring?

  • the virus is in the lytic cycle
  • the virus is in the lysogenic cycle
  • the virus is being modified by the host
  • the virus is being degraded by the host

Some viruses, such as HIV, have an RNA genome. In the case of retroviruses, the RNA is reverse transcriped into DNA by protein called reverse transcriptase and that DNA is incorporated into the host cell's genetic material where it is treated as part of the host genome. The RNA genome of the virus contains the code for reverse transcriptase because the host cell does not normally make this protein. Researchers have developed a drugs that includes an enzyme called AZT, which is an inhibitor of reverse transcriptase. Which of the following statements best explains why researchers would choose to target reverse transcriptase as a way to fight HIV?

  • Reverse transcriptase is needed in the process of virus replication and is not needed as part of the host cell's normal functions.
  • Reverse transcriptase is the only protein in the development of the virus that could potentially prevent it from being replicated.
  • The virus cannot properly function without the presence of reverse transcriptase in the capsid.
  • Reverse transcriptase is also needed during the lysing of the host cell, which means that cells cannot be killed without it.

One reason RNA viruses evolve so quickly is that

  • The viral RNA acts as a transcription factor for the host cell's DNA and mutates while serving in this capacity,
  • Their host's genome evolves rapidly with the incorporation of the viral genes.
  • Some viruses are naturally selected to evolve faster than others.
  • There are no replication error-checking mechansism in their genomes.

When phage DNA becomes incorporated into a host cell's genome, it is known as a

  • prophage.
  • provirus.
  • bacteriophage.
  • plasmid.

Which of the following best describes viruses?

  • Viruses are evolutionary precursors to bacteria.
  • Viruses are the link between life and non-life.
  • Viruses are small, primitive bacteria.
  • Viruses are similar to archae.

Which of the following could be used as genetic material in a virus?

  • highly branched glycogen
  • glycoprotein chain
  • single-stranded RNA
  • polypeptide chain

HIV is the retrovirus that is responsible for causing AIDS in humans. It has an RNA genome and it is able to make a DNA compliment from the RNA. The retrovirus HIV is able to do this inside a host cell using...

  • RNA polymerase
  • DNA polymerase
  • RNA synthase
  • Reverse Transcriptase

In viruses like HIV, the genetic recombination and variation of the virus particles is very high due to which of the following?

  • damage to the virus particle from the envelope loss during infection
  • errors introduced in the DNA molecule during reverse transcription
  • errors in the proteins produced during translation
  • recombination of the free-floating viral particles

Viruses like varicelle-zoster (chicken pox) can re-emerge later in life as shingles. The herpes virus can flare up repeatedly for the rest of an infected person's life. Which of the following best explains why this occurs?

  • a person is exposed to a different strain of the virus
  • the virus is a lysogenic virus which results in a pro-virus. Viral DNA is in the host cell's chromosome
  • the virus is a lytic virus, which results in the destruction of host cells and causes symptoms
  • the virus contains a protective envelope that prevents the host's immune system from identifying it

In which area will the RNA polymerase attach allowing transcription to occur?

  • regulator
  • promoter
  • operator
  • terminator

If the operon model above represented the trp operon and tryptophan was present in the medium, which of the following would occur?

  • The RNA polymerase binds to the promoter site and transcribes the genes for tryptophan.
  • Tryptophan binds to the repressor and the repressor is activated.
  • The repressor is activated and blocks transcription by binding to the operator.
  • Both B and C occur.

The tryptophan operon represses the expression of the trp gene when tryptophan is present in the environment. The lactose operon does the opposite; it induces the expression of the lac gene when lactose is present. Which of the following would be another example of an induced operon model?

  • The presence of a certain antibiotic causes the expression of the gene that leads to resistance to that antibiotic.
  • The addition of the GTP cap and poly-A tail to messenger RNA prior to it exiting the nucleus.
  • The coiling of DNA around histones is reduced as the acetyl groups attach to the lysine molecules.
  • An enhancer binds to the DNA sequence and promotes gene expression by folding the DNA and bringing it closer to the operator.

Because prokaryotes lack a nuclear membrane, transcription and translation processes can be occurring at the same time. Eukaryotic cells possess a nuclear envelope preventing transctiption and translation from occurring simultaneously. Eukaryotes use transcription factors to turn mRNA formation on and off. Which of the following are functions of transcription factors found in eukaryotic cells?

  • bind to the basal promoter of DNA
  • bind to regions of DNA that are located away from the gene they control
  • control the rate at which a gene is transcribed
  • all of these

In which colonies would shmoos, the haploid cells that contain a cellular bulge, most likely form first?

  • W and X
  • W and Y
  • Y and Z
  • Y and X

Why would the colonies in these two positions first produce shmoos?

  • They produce the same pheromone which attracts the two colonies to each other.
  • They produce the opposite pheromones which attracts the two colonies to each other.
  • They are located the closest to each other resulting in the quickest attraction.
  • They are attracted to the colony that is furthest away.

Which of the following occurs after the pheromones bind to the specific receptors on the yeast cells?

  • The signal transduction pathway causes changes in the cells that lead to cell fusion.
  • The signal transduction pathway causes the haploid cells to go through mitosis.
  • The signal transduction pathway causes the haploid cells replicate at an increased rate.
  • The signal transduction pathway causes changes in the cells that lead to cell apoptosis.

What is the purpose of the reverse transcriptase?

  • Its enzymatic activities converts viral RNA into DN
  • It removes the viral envelope allowing the genetic material to easily pass into the host cell.
  • It breaks down the glycoproteins on the surface of the virus so that it can enter the host cell.
  • It initiates the transcription process to make mRNA within the host cell.

What process is occurring at location 3 in the diagram?

  • entry into the cell
  • replication
  • transcription
  • translation

The life cycle of the virus above is halted before the processes at locations 2 and 3 have begun. Which of the following describes the virus at this point?

  • The virus has entered the lytic cycle and will be assembling the viral genomes and proteins of its progeny.
  • The virus is latent and is increasing pathogenicity of the host cell by integrating viral DNA into the cell.
  • The virus will mutate so that antibiotics will be detrimental to its survival.
  • The virus will transfer DNA from one bacterium cell to another in a process known as transduction.

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus similar to the one in the diagram. The HIV virus is different from many retroviruses because it contains two copies of an RNA strand. Which of the following is a result of having two RNA strands rather than one?

  • The viruses are more stable and do not tend to mutate often.
  • The virus will be able to reproduce on its own because it has two strands of genetic material that can combine to produce a daughter cell.
  • The genomes are less stable because of the additional number of ways the genes can recombine causing variations within the viral population.
  • They have a longer incubation time because both RNA strands must replicate.

In the lac operon, which of the following describes the behavior of the cAMP-CAP complex when only lactose is present in the bacterial cell environment?

  • CAP binds to cAMP and transcription of the structural genes can take place.
  • CAP will not bind to cAMP, but transcription of the structural genes occurs at a low level.
  • CAP does not bind to cAMP, and no transcription of the structural genes occurs.
  • CAP binds to cAMP and the repressor binds to the operator, so transcription of the structural genes doesn not occur.

The trp operon is referred to as a repressible operon. Which of the following describes the action of the operon when tryptophan is present in the bacterial cell's environment?

  • Tryptophan acts as a repressor, binding to the operator and thus blocks the activity of RNA polymerase.
  • Tryptophan acts as a co-repressor, causing the repressor to bind to the operator, blocking the activity of RNA polymerase.
  • Tryptophan binds to the repressor and induces a conformational change in the repressor, causing the repressor to become loosened from the operator, allowing RNA polymerase to transcribe structural genes.
  • Tryptophan binds to the promoter, enhancing the activity of RNA polymerase so that the structural genes are continuously transcribed.

Viruses are considered to be non-living, non-cellular entities, yet possess some qualities of living organisms. Which of the following characteristics of life is NOT a characteristic shared by viruses?

  • reproduction
  • capacity to evolve
  • response to stimulus
  • composed of biomolecules (proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates)

Viruses can introduce genetic variety into species in all of the following ways except

  • transduction in bacterial cells.
  • transformation of bacterial cells.
  • reverse transcription of viral RNA into viral DN
  • inserting viral genes into host genomes.

Each of the following is a component of viruses except

  • capsid.
  • nucleic acid core.
  • cell membrane.
  • glycoproteins.

The diagram above illustrates the prcoess of transduction of bacteria by a bacteriophage. Which of the following statements explains how this process can increase genetic variation in the population of bacteria?

  • The bacteria in step 4 that receives the genetic information from the bacteriophage incorporates the genes that code and will produce phage proteins.
  • Bacterial proteins transferred from the infected bacteria in step 2 by the phage in step 3 to recombine with viral genes on the recipient's chromosome in step 6.
  • The phage DNA that is introduced to the recipient bacteria is cause for random point mutations on the choromosome of the bacteria.
  • Bacterial DNA is packaged in a phage during step 2, which will allow for insertion and recombination of the bacertial DNA in the recipient cell.

Some viruses, such as HIV, have an RNA genome. In the case of retroviruses, the RNA is reverse transcriped into DNA by protein called reverse transcriptase and that DNA is incorporated into the host cell's genetic material where it is treated as part of the host genome. The RNA genome of the virus contains the code for reverse transcriptase because the host cell does not normally make this protein. Researchers have developed a drugs that includes an enzyme called AZT, which is an inhibitor of reverse transcriptase. Which of the following statements best explains why researchers would choose to target reverse transcriptase as a way to fight HIV?

  • Reverse transcriptase is needed in the process of virus replication and is not needed as part of the host cell's normal functions.
  • Reverse transcriptase is the only protein in the development of the virus that could potentially prevent it from being replicated.
  • The virus cannot properly function without the presence of reverse transcriptase in the capsid.
  • Reverse transcriptase is also needed during the lysing of the host cell, which means that cells cannot be killed without it.

Viruses with an RNA genome tend to mutate and adapt to their host more quickly than viruses with a DNA genome. Which of the following is the best explanation for this?

  • Viruses with an RNA genome rely on reverse transcriptase to copy the genome into DNA and reverse trascriptase does not have a proof-reading mechanism.
  • RNA is an unstable molecule and degrades quickly, which causes genetic variation and missing genes between viral generations.
  • The genomic RNA is not translated using the same ribosomes as mRNA, which leads to the incorrect polypeptide chains.
  • Virues with an RNA genome cannot enter into the lysogenic phase because they cannot incorporate their DNA into the host DNA, which reduces the fidelity of the genetic material.

What does the diagram above illustrate?

  • the lytic cycle of a virus
  • the production of new viral DNA
  • the lysogenic stages of a viral life cycle
  • the recombination of viral DNA with host DNA

Biotechnology includes all of the following except

  • artificially selecting desirable traits in Brassica to produce cabbage.
  • breeding livestock to produce cattle with longer horns.
  • creating "grappies" (apples with the flavor of grapes) by altering the apple's DN
  • allowing a plant to grow and perform photosynthesis in your yard.

The purpose of restriction enzymes in bacteria is

  • to digest extra DNA that is replicated when the bacterial chromosome gets copied.
  • to digest foreign DNA such as that from viruses that may enter the bacterial cell.
  • to digest protein molecules that may enter the bacterial cell.
  • to provide the bacterial cell with antibiotic resistance.

What is the purpose of growing transformed cells on an agar plate with antibiotics?

  • to determine if the bacteria were successfully transformed by the recombinant DNA plasmid
  • to determine if the bacteria can reproduce in an condition
  • to see if the bacteria can produce restriction enzymes
  • to see if the bacteria will produce plasmids on their own

PCR stands for

  • polymerase chain restriction.
  • polymerase cytosine reaction.
  • polymerase chain reaction.
  • polymerase cloning reaction.

The DNA fragments in the gel above were separated when an electric field applied and the fragments moved through the gel at different speeds. The difference in the speed of the migration of the DNA was due to

  • the amount of radioactive DNA in the samples.
  • the size of the individual fragments.
  • the negative charge of the molecules.
  • the amount of restriction enzymes used in the sample.

Which of the following is true about the DNA samples?

  • Sample 2 had more restriction sites than the other samples.
  • Sample 1 is the smallest DNA fragment.
  • Samples 4 and 3 are the same DNA fragment.
  • Samples 1 and 2 are the same DNA fragment.

Which sample produced the smallest fragment of DNA?

  • Sample 2
  • Sample 1
  • Sample 4
  • Samples 3 and 4

Restriction enzymes are essential in various biotechnology applications. Which of the following DNA sequences represents a site recognizable by restriction enzymes?

When a frozen, fully-intact Wooly Mammoth was discovered, it was preserved well enough to extract soft tissue and small amounts of DNA. What technique would be used to amplify the DNA for further analysis?

  • DNA electrophoresis
  • cDNA library
  • DNA transformation
  • PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

Transformation is a process that uses restriction enzymes, plasmids, and bacteria to form recombinant DNA. What enzyme is required to join the sticky ends of the DNA fragments during transformation process?

  • DNA polymerase
  • DNA ligase
  • restriction enzymes
  • nucleases

Why is amplification of DNA necessary when analyzing genes?

  • DNA strand is fragmented and must always be amplified before analyzing.
  • A single gene is only a very small fraction of the organisms' genome; it must be amplified before analysis.
  • Restriction enzymes used in isolating DNA makes the fragments too small to use.
  • DNA isolation damages the DNA so that only very little is able to be used and that must be amplified.

Taq polymerase is a key enzyme in the PCR process. Which of the following reflects the importance of this enzmye to the PCR process?

  • It is heat stable and can withstand the temperature changes of the cycler.
  • Only very small amounts of the enzyme is required for the process.
  • It is a very active enzyme that readily binds to the nucleotides.
  • It is a complimentary enzyme to the polymerase enzyme.

There are many medical applications of biotechnology. However, there are still ethical issues that surround the use of biotechnology. Which application of DNA technology is not done routinely at this time due to the ethical issues?

  • Using microbes to produce human hormones such as insulin to treat diabetes.
  • Using genetic testing to identify genetic carriers of harmful alleles.
  • Using genetically engineered plants to resist pests and reduce the amount of chemical pesticides sprayed on crops.
  • Introducing genetically engineered genes into human gametes to produce "designer" children.

Which biotechnology is correctly paired with its function?

  • Gel electrophoresis - amplifies DNA from small amounts
  • PCR - forms a cDNA library to allow for comparisons
  • RNAi - separates DNA using an electrical field
  • DNA microarray - allows multiple comparisons of DNA at one time

Conjugation in bacteria introduces variation because

  • DNA is being taken up from the environment by a bacterial cell.
  • A plasmid is being exchanged by two adjacent bacterial cells.
  • A virus is transferring DNA from one bacterial cell to another.
  • Crossing over is occurring on a bacterial chromosome.

Homeobox genes are a set of regulatory genes that are found in many animals and are highly conserved. These genes are usually transcribed during embryonic development of the organism. Which statement summarizes the purpose of homeotic genes?

  • These encode transcription factors that will regulate the expression of genes that are responsible for the development of anatomical structures.
  • These are found only in fruit flies and other invertebrates and are responsible for the development of their legs.
  • These genes are responsible for the develpment of plant vascular tissue as well as the vascular tissue of animals.
  • These genes will produce proteins that silence cell differentiation and preserve the genetic code of the organism from degrading.

What causes diversity of life?

  • The genomes have remained unchanged over thousands of years and cellular mechanisms have been conserved.
  • The constant changes to the global climate constantly force new genes to be developed in all organisms.
  • Phenotypes among populations tend to stabilize overtime with only new ones arising out of harsh and extreme circumstances.
  • Variation is derived from mechansisms such as mutations and natural selection which allow for evolution of the genome and results in differential phenotypes.

Which of the following does not lead to the formation of aneuploid gametes?

  • Failure of homologous pairs to separate at anaphase I.
  • A mutatation in a single gene located on chromosome 2.
  • A pair of sex chromosomes that does not separate during anaphase I.
  • A set of sister chromotids that doest not separate during anaphase II.

A bacterial cell with a chromosome that has the gene for the F factor plasmid conjugates with another bacterium. How is the donor DNA transmitted and incorporated into another bacterium?

  • A virus accidentally packages bacterial DNA with the F factor gene and infects the recipient with this gene. This recipient bacterium is now able to incorporate this bacterial DNA into its genome.
  • The gene on the bacterial chromosome is transferred to the plasmid and back again as a transposable element, moving to the plasmid only when needed to be transferred and shared.
  • The F factor plasmid is able to be copied and transferred through sex pili to the recipient bacteria. The plasmid copy with the F factor gene is able to be expressed by the recipient bacteria.
  • The donor DNA and recipient DNA are cut into pieces by restriction enzymes, and reassembled into a new chromosome from the fragments, allowing new genes to be expressed.

Which of the following is evidence of variation within a population?

  • a mutation in a genotype produces a new phenotype of an individual
  • a particular species becomes rare in its native habitat
  • changes in climate interrupt the life cycle of a native plant
  • a genetically modified plant is created in a lab

Sickle-cell disease is a genetic condition and is found with a greater frequency in Africa. This harmful allele is found in a greater percentage of the population where the parasite that causes Malaria is a greater threat to the human population than in other parts of the world. What is the reason for the difference in the frequency of this harmful allele?

  • balanced polymorphism
  • sexual dimorphism
  • heterozygote advantage
  • frequency-dependent selection

An anti-malarial drug known as Chloroquine was very effective against malaria and highly prescribed. Over time, resistance to Chloroquine has developed and a gene has been identified as pfcrt. Several mutations in this gene show correlation with the chloroquine resistance phenotype. This is an example of

  • genetic variation within a population.
  • bacteria becoming stronger than other infectious diseases.
  • protists becoming weaker due to overexposure to anti-malarial drugs.
  • mutated genes being pressured out of a population due to drug exposure.

What is the purpose of cloning human genes into bacteria?

  • to induce new properties in the bacteria
  • to introduce genetic variation into a population
  • to be able to produce large quantities of a protein
  • to create new organisms that are beneficial to humans

A genome is

  • all the proteins produced by a cell.
  • all the noncoding DNA present in an organism's chromosomes.
  • all the DNA present in a cell's mitochondria.
  • all the DNA present in a cell.

All of the following are ways that variation can be introduced into bacterial genomes except

  • mutation.
  • transduction.
  • crossing over.
  • transformation.

An organism is considered to by polyploid when

  • it contains a full extra set of chromosomes.
  • it contains a diploid number of chromosomes.
  • it is missing one half of a chromosome pair.
  • it has a duplicate set of sex chromosomes.

If a restriction site is found in the middle of a desired gene, and an enzyme that recongizes that site is used to cut the DNA, what will be the result?

  • The restriction enzyme will cut the DNA on either side of the gene and it will be unharmed.
  • The restriction enzyme will copy the gene multiple times.
  • The restriction enzyme will cut the gene in the middle of the sequence and make it useless.
  • The restriction enzyme will not recognize a restriction site inside of a gene at all.

Which structure in a bacterium cell contains genes that are resistant to antibiotics?

  • flagellum
  • nucleus
  • pili
  • plasmid

A protein that cuts double-stranded DNA at a specific site to form sticky ends is called

  • a polymerase.
  • a kinase.
  • a restriction enzyme.
  • a helicase.

A plasmid being exchanged between two bacterial cells is one way that genetic variation is introduced into a population. This process is known as

  • nondisjuntion.
  • conjugation.
  • polyploidy.
  • transformation.

There are several examples of plants, such as wheat, that contain a full set of extra chromosomes. Which of the following terms best describes this occurrance?

  • polyploid
  • anueploid
  • point mutations
  • silent mutations

During anaphase I, a pair of sex chromosomes fail to separate, resulting in one cell receiving an extra copy of the chromosome and the other cell receiving none. The occurance will result in an offspring that is considered

  • aneuploid
  • diploid
  • haploid
  • polypoid

Which of the following is not a vital component of PCR?

  • a DNA template strand
  • primers
  • a polymerase
  • radio-labeled nucleotides

Which of the following lab procedures is most useful in determining if a restriction enzyme digest has been successful?

  • agarose gel electrophoresis
  • PCR
  • examining the product under a microscope
  • using a centrifuge to pellet the product

It is common that a plasmid used to clone a recombinant gene also carries a gene for antibiotic resistance. What purpose does this serve in the process of cloning a human gene into bacteria?

  • Antibiotic resistant bacteria have a high transformation rate than those that are not resistant.
  • Antibiotic resistance genes have the same restriction sites as most human genes.
  • It is used as an indicator for successful gene insertion.
  • It is used as an indicator for a successful transformation.

Which well is most likely the ligated plasmid with the gene inserted?

  • Well 1
  • Well 2
  • Well 3
  • Well 4

Which well is most likely holding the sample of the restriction digest?

  • Well 1
  • Well 2
  • Well 3
  • Well 4

In well 3, which band most likely represents the gene to be inserted into the plasmid?

Which of the following is the main reason for the diversity of life derived from the universal common ancestor?

  • The genomes are virtually identical with little changes producing organisms with similar cellular mechanisms.
  • The alternative splicing of genomes allows the diversity of life and allows for the changes in phenotypes.
  • Phenotypes are a result of organisms that have existed for millions of years with minor changes in their biochemistry.
  • The genetic variation that allows for variation is derived from mechansism such as mutations and natural selection which allow for evolution of the genome and results in differential phenotypes.

An anti-malarial drug known as Chloroquine was very effective against malaria and highly prescribed. Over time, resistance to Chloroquine has developed and a gene has been identified as pfcrt. Several mutations in this gene show correlation with the chloroquine resistance phenotype. Which of the following supports the new phenotype of chloroquine resistance?

  • The protist that causes malaria developed mutations in this gene over time. Those protists that had the mutations survived the Chloroquine treatments were able to survive and reproduce therefore passing on their genes.
  • Individual protists are able to exchange genetic information to generate the mutations and become resistant to the chloroquine.
  • Some protists have the mutated genes while others do not. These mutations are random and can not be passed on to offspring.
  • Viruses are responsible for passing mutated genes through transduction to normal protists, therefore passing on chloroquine resistance.

Cystic Fibrosis is a recessive autosomal genetic disorder in which affected individuals have a defective protein that affects their body's ability to regulate water transport across membranes. This results in a thick mucus to build up in the lungs and intestinal tracts of individuals affected by the disease. It is believed that as many as one in every 25 people who are of European descent are carriers for the allele that causes cystic fibrosis. The prevalence of this allele in the European population is believed to be linked to a resistance to cholera. Researchers believe that anyone who carries the allele for cystic fibrosis would be more likely to survive a cholera infection. This is an example of

  • balanced polymorphism.
  • sexual dimorphism.
  • heterozygote advantage.
  • frequency-dependent selection.

Which of the following components are needed in the reaction used to DNA sequencing?I. DNA templateII. Reverse transcriptaseIII. DeoxyribonucleotidesIV. Fluorescent labeled dideoxyribonucleotides

  • I only
  • I and IV
  • I, III, IV
  • I, II, III, IV

Pax-6 is a gene that is a master control gene for the development of eyes, sensory organs and specific neural tissues. Pax-6 is found in many organisms that develop eyes and produces a protein that plays a regulatory role in gene expression. A pax-6 gene from a mouse can be expressed in a fly and the protein (PAX-6) leads to a normal, compound fly eye. Which of the following supports this information?

  • pax-6 genes are identical in sequence across organisms and lead to identical PAX-6 proteins
  • PAX-6 proteins are different in each species and will not work in another species
  • pax-6 gene is highly conserved and shows shared evolutionary ancestry
  • PAX-6 proteins differ among species and produce different tissue structures

Choose all of the nutrient plates on which the bacteria transformed with a plasmid containing the recombinant eukaryotic gene will grow.

  • a plate with only nutrient broth
  • a plate with nutrient broth and tetracycline
  • a plate with nutrient broth and ampicillin
  • a plate with nutrient broth, ampicillin and tetracycline

In the experiment above, which of the following would indicate that the plasmid was not transformed or was not successfully introduced into the bacteria?

  • no colonies appeared on any of the plates
  • growth only occurred on the plate with only nutrient broth
  • growth only occured on the plate with tetracycline
  • growth only occured on the plate with both antibiotics

Transformation of recombinant DNA into prokaryotes is commonly used to get prokaryotes to produce protein products of eukaryotic genes. Which of the following statements reflects difficulties in the expression of eukaryotic genes by prokaryotes?

  • The regulatory elements that control gene expression of eukaryotic genes are different from the regulatory elements of prokaryotic genes. These elements must be included with the eukaryotic gene ir order for expression.
  • The genetic code of bacteria is vastly different from the genetic code of eukaryotes and therefore the eukaryotic gene will not be expressed. You need to include the correct amino acids to express the genes from the eukaryote.
  • The ribosomes of the prokaryotes are different in subunit size. These ribosomes are too small to express the mRNA transcript of the eukaryotic gene.
  • The gene expression enzymes of prokaryotes are vastly different from the gene expression enzymes in eukaryotes. The eukaryotic gene is incompatible with the prokaryotic genome.

The process in the image above is a critical process during a cell cycle. Which of the following is the best description of the process in the image above?

  • During prophase I of meiosis, crossing over allows for genetic recombination of parental alleles at the chiasmata.
  • During prophase of mitosis, crossing over allows for the production of two genetically different daughter cells.
  • The joining of the sister chromatids in the homologous pair of chromosomes allows the spindle apparatus to attach to the centromere using the chiasmata.
  • DNA synthesis during the cell cycle allows for the recombination of alleles and forms four genetically identical cells.

Using the image above, which of the following descriptions best explains the chromosome arrangement during this process?

  • The cells are genetically unique at stage 2 and result in deploid cells at stage 5 due to the process of mitosis.
  • The cells are diploid after stage four but haploid at stage five due to crossing over and independent assortment.
  • The cells are diploid before stage four, but haplid after due to the separations of sister chromatids during anaphase I.
  • The cells are dipliod before state four, but haploid after due to separation of homologous pairs during anaphase I.

What number in the above diagram represents when crossing over takes place?

  • step 1
  • step 2
  • step 3
  • step 4

What were the genotypes of the fruit flies that produced these offspring?

  • vg vg x vg+ vg+
  • vg+ vg x vg+ vg
  • vg vg x vg vg
  • vg vg x vg+ vg

What type of cross is described in the above scenairo?

  • test cross
  • dihybrid cross
  • monohybrid cross
  • parental cross

If both parents are heterozygous for all three traits what is the probability that their children will be a carrier for two of the three traits?

  • 1/16
  • 3/16
  • 3/8
  • 1/8

How many different gametes can each parent produce?

  • 2
  • 4
  • 8
  • 32

What is the recombination frequency of these alleles and what conclusions can be made from these data?

  • The alleles for scales and spiked tail have a recombination frequency of 87% and indicate that these alleles are on separate chromosomes.
  • The alleles for scales and spiked tail have a recombination frequency of 13% and indicate that these alleles are on separate chromosomes.
  • The alleles for scales and spiked tail have a recombination frequency of 13% and indicate that these alleles are linked on the same chromosome.
  • Thee is not enough information to determine the recombination frequency.

Further studies of the dragon like organisms lead to the discovery of other autosomal dominant traits and their recombination frequencies. The following recombination frequencies of these traits were found to be:Winged (W) - (S) = 12%Antenna (A) - (S) = 30% (W) - (A) = 42%What would be the linkage map for these alleles on this chromosome?

  • W - S - T - A
  • S - T - W - A
  • T - W - S - A
  • T - A - W - S

A man who has the blood type A- marries a woman who has the blood type AB+. The man's mother had B- blood type; the woman's father had blood type A-. What is the probability that their first child will have the blood type B-?

  • 1/2
  • 1/4
  • 1/8
  • 0

Which is the most likely inheritance pattern for human blood group?

  • co-dominance and multiple alleles
  • incomplete dominance and multiple alleles
  • multiple alleles ONLY
  • sex-linked and co-dominance

James Watson, Francis Crick, and Maurice Wilkins won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1962 for determining the structure of DNA. However, Rosalind Franklin's photo 51, an x-ray diffraction image played an important role in Watson and Crick's discovery. Without Rosalind's knowledge, after Wilkin's shows this image to Watson and Crick, they are able to deduce the structure of DNA. Which statement supports the data of Rosalind Franklin's photo 51 and the structure of DNA?

  • The bases pair in equal ratios to each other.
  • The sequence of nucleotides determines the genetic information.
  • The nucleotide strands of DNA are antiparallel to each other.
  • The molecular structure of DNA is a double stranded helix.

In 1928, Federick Griffith observed that harmless strain of Streptoccus pneumoniae was transformed into a virulent strain by what he termed "transformation factor". In 1944 Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty verified Griffith's experiment and set out to identify the transformation factor using the same strains of harmless, live S. pneumoniae and extracts of the virulent strain. Avery and his team treated these bacteria strains with various enzymes. Which of the following enzymes were used by Avery and why?

  • proteases and RNase to rule out proteins and RNA as Griffith's transformation factor
  • lipase to rule out lipids and lipid containing molecules as Griffith's transforming factor
  • kinases to show that the transformation factor is dependent on a signal transduction cascade.
  • ATPase to show that the transformation factor will not work without the presence of ATP.

Erwin Chargaff studied the nucleotide components of various organisms. Based upon his data, Chargaff noticed a particular pattern between the nitrogen bases of the nucleotides. Even though the amount of DNA for each species studied was different, the percentages of nitrogen bases always showed the same result. The sea urchin showed about 17.7% guanine where as the human showed about 19.9% guanine in their DNA. According to Chargaff's rule, what is the most likely percentage of adenine in each organism and why?

  • 17.7% adenine for the sea urching and 19.9% adenine in humans, because the percentage of nitrogen bases are always the same in each species.
  • 64.6% adenine for the sea urchin and 60.3% adenine in humans, because the percentage of guanine must account for the percentage of cytosine and the percentage of adenine must account for the percentage of cytosine.
  • 32.3% adenine for the sea uchin and 30.15% adenine in humans, because 100% of the bases must include all four nucleotide percentages. The percentage of adenine must be equal to thymine and the percentage of guanine must be equal to cytosine.
  • It is impossible to determine the percentage of adenine from cytosine because cytosine only pairs with guanine. The nucleotide adenine only pairs with thymine and to determine the percentage, the amount of thymine must be known.

Which of the following explains which of the fertilized cells results in Down syndrome?

  • Cell 1 because the process of nondisjunction removed a chromosome from the cell.
  • Cell 2 because the process of nondisjunction created a cell with a trisomic condition.
  • Cell 3 because the process of meiosis segregated the sister chromatids into individual chromosomes in the final cells.
  • Cell 4 because the process of independent assortment allowed each cell to possess its own traits regardless of the inheritance of other traits.

The figure can best assist in answering which of the following questions?

  • Is it true that monosomic disorders are inherited and trisomic disorders are acquired?
  • How can monosomic and trisomic disorders be diagnosed?
  • Is meiosis I the only time that nondisjunction can occur?
  • Can mitosis cause inheritable genetic disorders?

If a normal man and an affected woman whose mother was normal were to have children, what would the probability of having a child unaffected by the disorder?

  • 0%
  • 50%
  • 25%
  • 100%

Which of the following is true regarding these parents?

  • The father is a carrier for the recessive allele because he is homozygous for this trait.
  • The mother is a carrier for the disorder, but is not affected by the harmful allele.
  • All children of these parents will be affected by the disorder since both parents carry the recessive allele.
  • Females must have at least one dominant allele in order to have the disorder where males are hemizygous and must inherit a single dominant allele to have the disorder.

A biochemist needs to synthesize DNA for molecule genetic comparison studies. In a test tube, the biochemist adds isolated, purified components required for DNA replication as well as the DNA molecule required for copying. Once the reaction has occurred, the results are analyzed. Instead of multiple copies of the DNA sequence, no replication has occurred. What substance did the biochemist most likely forget to add to the test tube?

  • nuclease
  • helicase
  • primase
  • ligase

The Labrador retriever has three fur colors that are recognized by Kennel Clubs worldwide as indicating purebreed Labradors: black, brown, and yellow. The allele (B) produces the pigment eumelanin. In the recessive form, this pigment is diluted and gives a brown, chocolate color to the fur. In the dominant form the pigment produces black fur.A second gene (E) determines where the pigment is deposited. If the genotype is EE or Ee, then the pigment is produced in the fur and in the skin. However, if the genotype is homozygous recessive, then the pigment will only be deposited in the skin such as foot pads, lining of eyes, mouth, and nose.What is the likely explanation for the inheritance of this trait?

  • This shows Mendelian dominant/recessive inheritance where the E allele is dominant to the B allele.
  • This trait shows incomplete dominance inheritance because three phenotypes are generated with brown Labradors being the middle phenotype.
  • This trait is polygenic because there is a range of phenotypes available.
  • This is an epistatic trait and the E allele will influence where pigment is deposited.

The retrovirus, HIV, causes AIDS. The genetic material of this virus is RNA and is able to make complementary DNA to this viral RNA. The retrovirus HIV is able to accomplish this in a host cell by using

  • RNA polymerase.
  • DNA polymerase.
  • RNA synthase.
  • reverse transcriptase.

In viruses like HIV, the genetic recombination and variation of the virus particles are very high due to which of the following?

  • damage to the virus particle from envelope loss during infection
  • errors introduced in the DNA molecule through reverse transcription
  • errors in the protein molecules produced in translation
  • recombination of the genomes of free virus particles

Viruses like varicella-zoster (chicken pox) can re-emerge later in life as shingles and the herpes virus can flare up for the rest of a person's life who is infected. Which of the following is responsible?

  • A person is exposed to a different strain of the same virus.
  • The virus is a lysogenic virus, which results in a pro-virus. Viral DNA is in the host cell's chromosome.
  • The virus is a lytic virus, which results in the dectruction of host cells, causing the symptoms.
  • The virus contains a protective viral envelope that prevents the host's immune system from identifying it.

What can be concluded from the diagram?

  • Both the mother and father are homozygous for Normal hemoglobin.
  • Both the mother and father are carriers for sickle-shaped hemoglobin.
  • The offspring has Normal hemoglobin.
  • Both A and

Sickle cell anemia is caused by an autosomal recessive gene. The disease is caused by a mutated version of the gene that helps make hemoglobin. At the molecular level, the mutated gene codes for the valine rather than glutamic acid. The DNA template for valine is GTG and the template for glutamic acid is GAG. What type of mutation leads to sickle cell anemia?

  • deletion
  • frameshift
  • insertion
  • substitution

In recent years, scientists have been investigating a way to manipulate the body's process of making hemoglobin. Scientists have discovered the enhancer, BCL11A, that regulates hemoglobin production. The production of adult hemoglobin in a person suffering with sickle cell anemia creates distorted hemoglobin. By allowing the body to resume making fetal hemoglobin, the hemoglobin remains in a normal shape. What is the function of enhancers in gene expression?

  • They increase gene expression by increasing the efficiency of the promoter and activating transcription of one or more genes.
  • They decrease gene expression by preventing transcription of genes.
  • They begin transcription by containing the sequence of DNA necessary for the RNA polymerase to attach.
  • They control the amount of DNA being transcribed by pausing the RNA polymerase.

When an infant is born, blood is collected from the foot and analyzed by hemoglobin electrophoresis for certain blood disorders. Which of the following factors is involved in causing the DNA fragments to move along the gel? I. size of the DNA fragment II. concentration of the gel III.the charge of the DNA fragments

  • I only
  • I and II
  • I, II, and III
  • None of these

On which plates are the genetically transformed bacterial cells located? I. Bacteria DNA grown on nutrient agar II. Bacteria DNA grown on nutrient agar with ampicillin III.Bacteria DNA with pGLO plasmid grown on nutrient agar with ampicillin IV. Bacteria DNA with pGLO plasmid grown on nutrient agar with ampicillin and araginose

  • IV only
  • II and IV
  • III and IV
  • II and III

What factor must be present in the environment for the bacteria to glow green?

  • ampicillin
  • arabinose
  • nutrient agar
  • prokaryotic nuclear membrane

When an ampicillin sensitive organism is combined with the DNA from an ampicilin resistant organism which cells can grow on agar containing ampicillin?

  • No cells can grow.
  • All cells can grow.
  • Only the cells that have gone through transformation can grow.
  • Only the ampicillin sensitive cells can grow.

4.1If the 2N chromosome number of the Wooly Mammoth was found to be 58, what would be the number of chromosomes found in the egg of the preserved female?

  • 29 pairs of autosomal chromosomes
  • 28 individual autosome chromosomes and 1 sex chromosome
  • 29 individual chromosomes and 2 sex chromosomes
  • 28 pairs of autosome chromosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes

4.1 Hypothetically, if the egg cells of this Wooly Mammoth were extracted and karyotyped and were found to have 30 chromosomes, what is the most probably stge of meiosis would this error have occurred?

  • prophase 1 or 2 due to the event of homologous chromosomes not pairing together
  • anaphase 1 or 2 due to the event of the spindle not separating the chromosomes correctly
  • metaphase 2 due to misalignment along the metaphase plate of the homologous pairs
  • metaphase 1 due to the misalignment along the metaphase plate of the sister chromatids.

4.1 If a particular trait had a gene that had a possibility of 9 alleles in the population of a species, which of the following is true regarding this gene?

  • The diploid number for the alleles would be 18 for this organism.
  • The haploid number for the alleles would be 9 for htis organism.
  • The maximum number of alleles for this gene would be 2.
  • There is infinite variety in the expression of this trait in one organism.

4.1 Compare the two life cycles above. What statement accurately describes the similarities between the life cycle of Fungi and Plants?

  • Fertilization of haploid gametes produces a diploid zygote in both life cycles.
  • After fusion of parental DNA, haploid spores will be produced by the process of meiosis.
  • In both life cycles the haploid stage represents that adult organism.
  • Mitosis is the main source of genetic variation through mutations during the diploid stages during both life cycles.

4.3Which of the following crosses will yield offspring that have type O blood?

  • AB x BO
  • AO x BB
  • AO x BO
  • AB x AO

4.1Bacteria reproduce by a process called binary fission. Other organisms, such as plants can also reproduce by vegetative propagation. Some animals such as hydra, small fresh water cnidarians, can reproduce by budding. These organisms use asexual reproduction to reproduce. However, sexual life cycles evolved independently in several lineages. Which describes the evolutionary significance of sexual reproduction vs. asexual reproduction?

  • Sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction allows for little or no genetic variation of the offspring produced, random mutations are the source of all genetic variation.
  • Asexual reproduction is more cost effective to the organism and to the environment.
  • Even though sexual reporduction is limited to females bearing the young, it allows for genetic variation among the offspring produced.
  • There is no difference between the genetic variation produced between sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction.

4.1 Within the cell, the homologous chromosomes pair together during which stage of cell division?

  • Prophase I of meiosis
  • Metaphase II of meiosis
  • Anaphase I of meiosis
  • Telophase II of meiosis

4.1 During prophase I, the nonsister chromatids exchange genetic material. Which of the following statements names the process and describes its significance?

  • Synapsis allows the chromatids to join together.
  • Crossing-over increases the genetic variability in the daughter cells.
  • Bivalence produces proteins which cause chromosomes to condense.
  • Chiasmata allows for the homologous chromosomes to separate.

4.1 Assume a cell containing the pair of homologous chromosomes actually has a diploid number of 48. Which of the following correctly states the number of chromosomes found in the cell during telophase I?

  • 12 chromosomes
  • 24 chromosomes
  • 48 chromosomes
  • 96 chromosomes

4.1 Which of the following describes a time during meiosis where genetic material is rearranged to increase genetic variability?

  • Chromosome tetrads randomly align on the metaphase plate during meiosis I resulting in the random migration of paternal and maternal chromosomes to the poles.
  • DNA replicates to create multiple chromosomes with duplicate genetic material; these chromosomes are all identical and unequally divide themselves into two cells.
  • During telophase and cytokinesis the chromosomes at each pole will be surrounded by a nuclear envelope resulting in a rearrangement of chromosomes in each cell.
  • During metaphase II, the synapsis attaches the sister chromatids together and the chromatids exchange genetic material resulting in two cells with a random number of chromosomes.

4.2 What is the most probable effect of the recessive allele on the organism?

  • The microvilli of the small intestines are not absorbing the molecules from digestion properly due to missing transport proteins because of non-functional golgi apparati.
  • The enzymes required to break down these nitrogen containing compounds are not being produced or they are non-functional due to a single gene nutation, which causes a non-functional metabolic enzyme.
  • The cells of the kidney responsible for absorbing wastes are not producing enough ATP for the active transport of the wastes due to malfunctioning mitochondria.
  • The receptor proteins of the neurons are not sending the signals to the digestive system to trigger the respnse of the breakdown of these nitrogen products because they are non functioing correctly.

4.2 A man whose mother had TMAU but unaffected himself married a woman whose sister had TMAU, but she showed no symptoms. The woman's parents did not exhibit symptoms of TMAU. What is the probability that they would have a child that is not affected by TMAU?

  • 0
  • 1/4
  • 3/4
  • 1/6

4.2If the woman was heterozygous, what would the probability be if they had two children both exhibiting the TMAU trait?

  • 1/4
  • 3/16
  • 1/16
  • 1/8

4.2What is the inheritance pattern of this pedigree?

  • autosomal dominant
  • antosomal recessive
  • heterozygosity
  • homozygosity

4.2What is the likely probability that the genotype of the second individual in generation III is a carrier?

  • 2/3
  • 1/2
  • 1/4
  • 3/4

4.2What is the probability that their first child will have the disorder if the father has no history of the disorder in his family?

  • 0
  • 1/4
  • 1/2
  • 3/4

4.2 What is the probability that their first child will be a carrier?

  • 0
  • 1/4
  • 1/2
  • 3/4

4.4 There are many enzymes that are required for DNA replication to occur. Which enzyme is correctly paired with its functions and why?

  • Helicase - begins to uwind the DNA at the origin of replication forming the replication bubble. This will be held open by single stranded binding proteins to allow for the addition of nucleotides to the parent strands toward the replication fork.
  • Topoisomerase - prevents degradation of the lagging strand by elongating it with the addition of extra nucleotides in order to preserve chromosome length.
  • Ligase - forms hydrogen bonds between Okazaki fragments in order to join the fragments together only after all the DNA nucleotides have been added.
  • Primase - this enzyme is responsible for adding RNA nucleotides to the lagging strand for elongation of the daughter strand to occur by DNA polymerase, only after nuclease removed the particular section for DNA repair.

4.4 The central dogma of biology specifically states that information flows from DNA > RNA > protein. As molecular genetics gets more advanced there are exceptions to this rule. Which statement best describes an exception to this rule?

  • A gene can code for various types of proteins due to mRNA processing in ejkaryotes. One gene can produce multiple polypeptides due to alternative splicing.
  • Human genomes contain non-coding DNA which purpose is to produce regulatory elements for gnen expression, not protein products.
  • Genomes can contain transposable elements, segments of DNA that are able to move from one chromosome to another as determined by Barbara McClintock.
  • Some viruses use RNA to infect host cells and utilize reverse transcriptase to reverse engineer their DNA to make more virus components. Once the virus capsids are produced, RNA and reverse transcriptase are packaged in these shells ready for release.

4.4 E. coli is a common bacterium that is used as a model organism. Many early experiments in determining the structure and replication of DNA utilized these bacteria to figure out the mechanism. As our techniques improved, we realized that even though the basic replication mechanism is the same, there are some differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic replication. Which statement best describes these differences?

  • Prokaryotes have multiple chromosome with multiple origins of replication, whereas eukaryotes have a single origin of replication.
  • Prokaryotes have parallel DNA and there is no need to copy a leading and lagging strand of DNA, whereas eukaryotes have to utilize a leading and lagging strand due to the limitations of DNA ploymerase and the antiparallel nature of DN
  • Prokaryotic DNA usually consists on one circular chromosome with one origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic DNA is linear with multiple chromosomes that contain multiple origins of replication. Both sets of DNA are antiparallel, both strands are copied in a 5' to 3' direction in a continuous segment toward the replication fork.
  • Prokaryotic DNA usually consists on one circular chromosome with one origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic DNA is linear with multiple chromosomes that contain multiple origins of replication. Both sets of DNA are antiparallel and must be copied with a leading strand running 5' to 3' and a lagging strand synthesized away from replication fork as fragments, due to the 3' to 5' direction of the parent strand.

6Pax-6 is a gene that is a master control gene for the development of eyes, sensory organs, and specific neural tissues. Pax-6 is found in many organisms that develop eyes and produces a protein that plays a regulatory role in gene expression. A Pax-6 gene from a mouse can be expressed in a fly and the protein (PAX-6) leads to a compound fly eye. Which of the following supports the above information?

  • Pax-6 genes are identical to nucleotide sequence and leads to identical PAX-6 proteins.
  • PAX-6 proteins are species specific and will not work in another species.
  • Pax-6 is highly conserved and shows shared evolutionary ancestry.
  • PAX-6 proteins are different and produce different eye and tissue structures.

6 Bacteria containing a plasmid transformed with the eukaryotic gene will grow in which of the following:

  • the plate cotaining nutrient broth only.
  • the plate containing nutrient broth and the plate with tetracycline.
  • all four types of media will show bacterial growth.
  • the plate with nutrient broth and the plate with ampicillin.

6 In the experiment above, which of the following would indicate that the plasmid was not transformed or was not successfully introduced into the bacteria?

  • No bacterial colonies on any of the media plates.
  • Growth will only occur on the plates with nutrient broth media.
  • Growth will only occur on the plates with tetracycline media.
  • Growth will only occur on the plates with ampicillin media.

6 Transformation is commonly used to get prokaryotes to produce protein products of eukaryotic genes. Which of the following statements reflects difficulties in the expression of eukaryotic genes by prokaryotes?

  • The regulatory elements that control gene expression of eukaryotic genes are different from the regulatory elements of prokaryotic genes. These elements must be included with the eukaryotic gene in order for expression.
  • The genetic code of bacteria is vastly different from the genetic code of eukaryotes and therefore the eukaryotic gene will not be expressed. You need to include the correct amino acids to express the genes from the eukaryote.
  • The ribosomes of prokaryotes are different in subunit size. These ribosomes are too small to express the mRNA transcript of the eukaryotic gene.
  • The gene expression enzymes of prokaryotes are vastly different from those gene expression enzymes of eukaryotes. The eukaryotic gene is incompatable with the prokaryote genome.

相关答案